LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions

Questions 45

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

Question 2 of 5

A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30� is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

Question 3 of 5

A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding coffee is important in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce acid production and alleviate symptoms. Coffee is known to stimulate acid secretion in the stomach, which can exacerbate ulcer symptoms. Therefore, instructing the client to avoid drinking coffee is essential in the dietary management of peptic ulcer disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is generally allowed and can even provide a protective effect against ulcers. High-fiber foods are beneficial for digestion and do not need to be avoided unless they cause discomfort. Low-fat foods are also typically recommended for individuals with peptic ulcer disease as they are easier on the digestive system.

Question 4 of 5

A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily is crucial when taking furosemide to detect fluid retention or loss. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt through urine. Changes in weight can indicate fluid shifts, which could be a sign of inadequate response to the medication or worsening condition. Therefore, monitoring weight daily is essential to assess the effectiveness of furosemide therapy and detect any potential issues early on. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics, not furosemide. Taking furosemide with food is not necessary, as it can be taken with or without food. Increasing salt intake is contradictory to the purpose of furosemide, which aims to eliminate excess salt from the body.

Question 5 of 5

A healthcare professional is supervising a newly licensed colleague who is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed colleague requires intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering an intramuscular injection at a 90� angle is essential for proper medication delivery into the muscle tissue. Injecting at a 45� angle is incorrect for intramuscular injections and is typically used for subcutaneous injections where the needle is inserted into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Choice A is correct as selecting a 25-gauge needle is appropriate for an intramuscular injection. Choice C is also correct as the ventrogluteal site is a suitable site for intramuscular injections. Choice D is correct as aspirating for blood return is a necessary step to ensure the needle is not in a blood vessel before injecting the medication.

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