ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.
Question 2 of 5
What is the first intervention for a patient in shock?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer fluids. In a patient experiencing shock, the priority is to address inadequate perfusion by restoring circulating blood volume. Administering fluids helps improve perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Monitoring blood pressure, providing oxygen, and calling for assistance are important steps but administering fluids is the initial and most critical intervention in the management of shock.
Question 3 of 5
What are the key considerations for managing a patient with COPD?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include oxygen therapy, which is essential to maintain adequate oxygen saturation levels. While bronchodilators are commonly used to manage COPD symptoms, they are not the primary consideration. Smoking cessation is crucial in preventing further damage but is not a direct management consideration. Pulmonary rehabilitation is beneficial for improving exercise capacity and quality of life but is not as crucial as ensuring adequate oxygen therapy.
Question 4 of 5
How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is preparing to discharge a client who is immunocompromised. Which of the following vaccines should the professional plan to administer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Immunocompromised clients have weakened immune systems, making them more susceptible to infections. The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for these individuals to help prevent pneumococcal infections, which can be severe and life-threatening. Varicella, Influenza, and Hepatitis B vaccines are not specifically indicated for immunocompromised clients. Varicella contains a live virus that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Influenza is generally recommended for all individuals over 6 months of age but does not have the same priority as the pneumococcal vaccine for immunocompromised clients. Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for preventing Hepatitis B infection but is not directly related to the increased infection risk faced by immunocompromised clients.
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