PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

Questions 65

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ATI LPN Test Bank

PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of seizures is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize ensuring the environment is safe for a client with a history of seizures. This intervention is crucial to prevent injury during a seizure. Administering medications as prescribed is important but ensuring a safe environment takes precedence to prevent harm. Monitoring for signs of infection and educating the client about triggers are also essential aspects of care but are not the priority when considering the immediate safety of the client during a seizure.

Question 2 of 5

A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for anemia is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is because ferrous sulfate is best absorbed in an acidic environment, which is enhanced on an empty stomach. However, if the client experiences gastrointestinal side effects, they can take the medication with food. Choice B, notifying the provider if stool becomes dark green, is correct because dark or black stools are common with iron therapy and not a cause for concern. Choice C, decreasing dietary fiber intake, is incorrect as dietary fiber does not interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate. Choice D, taking prescribed antacids at the same time, is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of ferrous sulfate.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a patient who follows the Mormon belief system. What modifications should the nurse include to meet Mormon dietary practices?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Offer non-caffeinated beverage options. Mormons avoid caffeinated beverages, so providing non-caffeinated options aligns with their religious practices. Choice A is incorrect because offering only vegetarian meal options is not a specific requirement of the Mormon dietary practices. Choice C is incorrect as kosher meals are associated with Jewish dietary laws, not specific to the Mormon belief system. Choice D is incorrect as limiting meat to only fish and poultry is not a specific dietary requirement for Mormons.

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