ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

Questions 73

ATI LPN

ATI LPN Test Bank

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client who is taking furosemide is being taught by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend to the client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which is essential for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. Therefore, recommending foods rich in potassium, such as bananas, can help maintain potassium levels within the normal range. Choices B, C, and D are not the best recommendations in this case as they are not particularly high in potassium.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is teaching dietary guidelines to a client who has celiac disease. Which of the following food choices is appropriate for the client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, potato pancakes. Individuals with celiac disease must avoid gluten-containing foods. Potato pancakes are gluten-free, making them a suitable choice for someone with celiac disease. Choice A, white flour tortillas, contains gluten from wheat flour, making it unsuitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice C, wheat crackers, also contain gluten and should be avoided. Choice D, canned barley soup, contains barley which is a gluten-containing grain and is not appropriate for someone with celiac disease.

Question 3 of 5

How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When managing a patient with suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate to assess the severity of the infection. Administering antibiotics is also essential to treat the infection. Choice B is incorrect because while checking for fever and monitoring white blood cell count are important, they alone are not sufficient to manage the patient. Choice C focuses on assessing pain and localized swelling, which are important but not primary in managing suspected infection. Choice D mentions monitoring for chills and administering fluids, which are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected infection.

Question 4 of 5

What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

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