PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

Questions 72

ATI LPN

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a new ileostomy is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ileostomy stomas typically drain liquid continuously, unlike colostomies. This continuous drainage is a key characteristic that clients should understand postoperatively. Choice A is incorrect because ensuring medications are enteric-coated is not directly related to understanding ileostomy care. Choice C is incorrect as changing the pouch system every two weeks is not a general rule and may vary depending on the individual's needs. Choice D is incorrect because the stoma size can change during the healing process and clients should be informed about this possibility.

Question 3 of 5

While assessing four clients, which client data should be reported to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm� is critically low and places the client at high risk for infection, necessitating immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases susceptibility to infections, making it essential to report this finding promptly. The other options, such as pain level in pleurisy, drainage amount from a drain, and heart rate postoperatively, are important but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent provider notification.

Question 4 of 5

A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy who reports fullness in the throat. What should the nurse assess for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Fullness in the throat after a thyroidectomy could indicate bleeding or a hematoma, which can compress the airway, so hemorrhage is the priority concern. Hypocalcemia typically presents with symptoms like tingling around the mouth or in the extremities, muscle cramps, or seizures, not fullness in the throat. Hypoxia would manifest with symptoms like shortness of breath, confusion, or cyanosis, rather than a feeling of fullness in the throat. Hypothyroidism symptoms include fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance, but it does not typically cause acute fullness in the throat postoperatively.

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