ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a client with a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism can lead to impaired gas exchange, causing hypoxemia. Administering oxygen helps to maintain adequate oxygenation levels. Thoracentesis is not indicated for a pulmonary embolism, as it is a procedure to remove fluid or air from the pleural space, not a treatment for embolism. Elevating the client's lower extremities is not a priority in the management of a pulmonary embolism. Administering anticoagulant therapy is important in the treatment of pulmonary embolism to prevent further clot formation, but it is not the first intervention. Oxygen administration takes precedence to address the immediate oxygenation needs of the client.
Question 2 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the priority action as it helps assess the content of the hallucinations. This assessment is crucial to determine if the client is at risk of harm to themselves or others. Encouraging the client to listen to music or providing a distraction may not address the underlying issues related to the hallucinations. Administering antipsychotic medication, although important, should come after a thorough assessment of the hallucinations to ensure the right medication and dosage are provided.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of long-term disease management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). The glycosylated hemoglobin test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months, providing an indication of long-term glycemic control in clients with diabetes. Choice A, postprandial blood glucose, reflects blood sugar levels after a meal and does not provide a long-term view. Choice C, glucose tolerance test, evaluates the body's ability to process sugar but does not offer a continuous assessment like the HbA1c test. Choice D, fasting blood glucose, measures blood sugar levels after a period of fasting, which is more indicative of immediate glycemic status rather than long-term management.
Question 4 of 5
A client with osteoporosis is being taught about increasing calcium intake. Which of the following foods should be recommended as the best source of calcium?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Yogurt is the best choice for increasing calcium intake in a client with osteoporosis. It provides around 300-400 mg of calcium per serving, making it an excellent food source for meeting their calcium needs. Broccoli, spinach, and almonds, while nutritious, do not provide as much calcium per serving as yogurt and are not as effective in helping clients with osteoporosis increase their calcium intake.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Butterfly rash on the face. A butterfly-shaped rash across the nose and cheeks is a classic symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disease. Weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with SLE. Joint deformities (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Increased hair growth (Choice D) is not a typical finding in SLE.
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