ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored

Questions 38

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ATI LPN Test Bank

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

Question 2 of 5

A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.

Question 3 of 5

A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

Question 4 of 5

A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Having the client pant during contractions is crucial to prevent premature pushing, particularly when the cervix is not fully dilated. Premature pushing can lead to cervical swelling and may impede the progress of labor. It is important to allow the cervix to fully dilate before active pushing to prevent complications. Assisting the client into a comfortable position (Choice A) may not address the urge to push and can lead to premature pushing. Observing the perineum for signs of crowning (Choice B) is important but does not address the immediate need to prevent premature pushing. Helping the client to the bathroom to void (Choice D) does not address the urge to push and may not be appropriate at this stage of labor.

Question 5 of 5

A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

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