PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: When managing a patient with fluid overload, the appropriate approach involves restricting fluids and administering diuretics. This strategy helps remove excess fluid from the body and prevent complications associated with fluid overload. Choice B suggesting increasing fluid intake is incorrect as it would worsen the condition. Choice C, administering antibiotics, is unrelated to managing fluid overload. Choice D, monitoring weight and providing a low-sodium diet, is helpful but not as effective as fluid restriction and diuretics in managing fluid overload.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5�C (97.7�F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome are weight gain and a moon face. Corticosteroids are used to manage Cushing's syndrome by reducing the overproduction of cortisol. Choice B is incorrect because hirsutism and thin extremities are not typical signs of Cushing's syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as purple striae and muscle weakness are more characteristic of the syndrome. Choice D is also incorrect as hypertension and bruising are not primary signs of Cushing's syndrome.