HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection presents with a sore throat, the nurse should request a complete blood count with differential. TMP-SMX can cause life-threatening adverse effects such as agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a low white blood cell count, which can manifest as a sore throat. Ordering a complete blood count with differential helps assess the patient's white blood cell count to detect any potential serious adverse effects. Throat culture (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific signs of a throat infection. Urinalysis (Choice C) is not relevant for assessing a sore throat. Coagulation studies (Choice D) are not typically indicated for a sore throat symptom.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.