HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.
Question 3 of 5
A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
Question 4 of 5
A patient asks the nurse about taking calcium supplements to avoid hypocalcemia. The nurse will suggest that the patient follow which instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement. Vitamin D enhances the absorption of calcium in the body, making it an essential component for calcium utilization. Choice B is incorrect because calcium and phosphorus have an inverse relationship, where an increased level of one mineral decreases the level of the other, so taking them together may not be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because antacids often contain magnesium, which can promote calcium loss instead of absorption. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin can alter vitamin D levels and interfere with calcium absorption, so it is not recommended when taking calcium supplements.
Question 5 of 5
A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.
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