HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam

Questions 45

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI Medical Surgical Specialty Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.

Question 2 of 5

A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client has misunderstood the directions if the client indicates that as part of aftercare he plans to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes is not a recommended aftercare practice for a skin biopsy. After a skin biopsy, it is important to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. Choice A is correct as using the antibiotic ointment as prescribed is a common post-biopsy instruction to prevent infection. Choice B is also correct as returning in 7 days to have the sutures removed is part of the typical follow-up care after a skin biopsy. Choice D is correct as it is important to call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs to prevent complications.

Question 3 of 5

A client with an oversecretion of renin has a health history reviewed by a nurse. Which disorder should the nurse correlate with this assessment finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Renin is secreted in response to low blood volume, blood pressure, or blood sodium levels. Excessive renin secretion can lead to persistent hypertension. Renin plays no role in Alzheimer's disease, diabetes mellitus, or viral hepatitis. Therefore, the correct correlation with oversecretion of renin is hypertension.

Question 4 of 5

A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

Question 5 of 5

A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.

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