HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Weight gain between dialysis sessions can indicate fluid overload, a common complication in clients with chronic renal failure. This can lead to complications such as hypertension, pulmonary edema, and heart failure. A normal temperature, blood pressure, and pulse rate are expected findings in this scenario and would not typically indicate a complication of hemodialysis treatment.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse explains to the client with Hodgkin's disease that a bone marrow biopsy will be taken after the aspiration. What should the nurse explain about the biopsy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A bone marrow biopsy helps determine the best treatment plan for Hodgkin's disease by providing crucial information about the extent and nature of the disease. While confirming the diagnosis is important, the primary purpose of the biopsy in this case is to guide treatment decisions. The biopsy is not primarily for assessing the extent of the disease in the bones or checking for infections in the bones.
Question 3 of 5
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay the development of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal failure. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in clients with diabetes mellitus to help reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy by improving renal blood flow. This medication class can help prevent or delay the development of renal failure in these clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct impact on preventing or delaying the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic cancer, or cerebrovascular accidents in clients with diabetes mellitus.
Question 4 of 5
A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.
Question 5 of 5
During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate isolation precautions. This is the priority action because the patient presents with symptoms that could be indicative of meningitis, an infectious disease that requires isolation to prevent its spread. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help manage the fever but does not address the need for isolation. Drawing blood cultures (Choice C) and preparing for a lumbar puncture (Choice D) are important steps in diagnosing meningitis but should come after initiating isolation precautions to prevent potential transmission of the infection to others.
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