HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

Questions 60

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HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.

Question 2 of 5

The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.

Question 3 of 5

A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.

Question 5 of 5

A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.

Similar Questions

A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?
During spring break, a young adult presents to the urgent care clinic and reports a stiff neck, a fever for the past 6 hours, and a headache. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
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The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
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