HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6 Questions
Question 1 of 5
After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
Question 2 of 5
What is the nurse manager's role in improving the quality of care on the unit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.
Question 3 of 5
Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperpigmentation is a characteristic symptom of Addison's disease. In Addison's disease, there is a decrease in cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion by the pituitary gland. Excess ACTH can stimulate melanocytes, resulting in hyperpigmentation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Hypertension is more commonly associated with conditions involving excess cortisol production, such as Cushing's syndrome. Hyperglycemia may occur in diabetes mellitus but is not a hallmark of Addison's disease. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is a common symptom of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol levels.
Question 5 of 5
The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.
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