HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6 Questions
Question 1 of 5
After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
Question 2 of 5
For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.
Question 3 of 5
What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Question 4 of 5
A client with DM is scheduled to have surgery. The nurse should plan to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. This is essential to ensure that the client's blood glucose levels remain within the target range and to prevent complications such as hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because giving a regular diet as ordered, holding insulin on the morning of surgery, or stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels, posing risks to the client's safety during the surgical procedure.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients who have sustained traumatic burns are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia due to cell lysis. When cells are damaged in a traumatic burn, potassium can leak out from the intracellular space into the bloodstream, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Colitis, Cushing's syndrome, and overuse of laxatives are not typically associated with the same degree of cell damage or potassium shifts seen in traumatic burns, making them less likely to result in such high potassium levels.
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