HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During an Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, leading to a life-threatening situation. Hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, is the medication of choice in managing an Addisonian crisis. It helps replace deficient cortisol levels, stabilize blood pressure, and prevent further complications. Insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in Addison's disease unless specifically needed for diabetes management. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is used in hypothyroidism, not in Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used to manage hyperthyroidism, which is not related to Addison's disease or its crisis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH plays a crucial role in regulating water balance by controlling the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not associated with diabetes insipidus. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) is responsible for regulating thyroid function, while FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone) are involved in reproductive functions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is by assisting the manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses. By doing so, the follower helps build a good working relationship with the manager, fostering mutual growth and development. Choice A is not the best option as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, which may not necessarily contribute to 'managing up.' Choice C is incorrect because transferring to a different unit should not be the first solution when dealing with a manager with poor leadership skills; instead, efforts should be made to improve the current working relationship. Choice D, while important, focuses more on showing respect and appreciation rather than actively helping the manager improve, which is key to 'managing up.'