HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During an Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, leading to a life-threatening situation. Hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, is the medication of choice in managing an Addisonian crisis. It helps replace deficient cortisol levels, stabilize blood pressure, and prevent further complications. Insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in Addison's disease unless specifically needed for diabetes management. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is used in hypothyroidism, not in Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used to manage hyperthyroidism, which is not related to Addison's disease or its crisis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.