HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6 Questions
Question 1 of 5
After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
Question 2 of 5
A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
Question 3 of 5
A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.
Question 4 of 5
A client with Addison's disease is experiencing an Addisonian crisis. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During an Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, leading to a life-threatening situation. Hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, is the medication of choice in managing an Addisonian crisis. It helps replace deficient cortisol levels, stabilize blood pressure, and prevent further complications. Insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in Addison's disease unless specifically needed for diabetes management. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is used in hypothyroidism, not in Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used to manage hyperthyroidism, which is not related to Addison's disease or its crisis.
Question 5 of 5
A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is by assisting the manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses. By doing so, the follower helps build a good working relationship with the manager, fostering mutual growth and development. Choice A is not the best option as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, which may not necessarily contribute to 'managing up.' Choice C is incorrect because transferring to a different unit should not be the first solution when dealing with a manager with poor leadership skills; instead, efforts should be made to improve the current working relationship. Choice D, while important, focuses more on showing respect and appreciation rather than actively helping the manager improve, which is key to 'managing up.'
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