Quizlet Mental Health HESI

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the discharge teaching for a client starting a new antidepressant medication is that "It may take several weeks to notice improvement." This is because antidepressants often require several weeks before the individual starts to feel the full therapeutic effects. Choice B is incorrect because immediate effects are not typically seen with antidepressants. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication abruptly can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects. Choice D is incorrect as open communication with the therapist is crucial for effective management of major depressive disorder.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most important client statement for the RN to explore in this scenario is the client not sleeping for several days. The lack of sleep is a critical indicator of possible severe depression or suicidal ideation that requires immediate attention. While expressing a wish to be with the deceased significant other, having a lack of interest in usual activities, and eating very little are concerning, the immediate focus should be on the client's severe sleep disturbance as it can pose an immediate risk to their well-being and safety.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, it is crucial for the nurse to first listen to what the client is saying. Auditory hallucinations may hold significance to the client, and by actively listening, the nurse can gather information about the content and context of the hallucinations. This information helps the nurse assess the client's current state, emotional responses, and the potential triggers for the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice A) should not be the initial action as it may suppress important information and feelings the client is trying to communicate. Sitting next to the client (Choice B) may not be appropriate without understanding the situation better. Escorting the client to his room (Choice C) may escalate the situation without addressing the underlying cause of the behavior, which can be better understood through active listening.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The client is experiencing a dystonic reaction due to dopamine depletion, which is a known side effect of Risperidone. Dystonia presents as abnormal muscle contractions and postures. The immediate management for this side effect is the administration of an anticholinergic medication like Benztropine (Cogentin). Choice A is incorrect as thioridazine is not the recommended medication for dystonic reactions. Choice B is incorrect as a hot pack would not effectively address the underlying cause of the dystonic reaction. Choice D is incorrect as occupational therapy is not the appropriate intervention for managing acute dystonia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why she checks the locks. By doing so, the nurse can help the client gain insight into the underlying anxiety that drives this behavior and assist her in developing new adaptive coping strategies. Choice A is not as effective as directly asking the client about her behavior. Choice C focuses on planning activities but does not address the root cause of the client's behavior. Choice D is irrelevant to addressing the client's repeated checking behavior.