HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis is receiving a corticosteroid. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure (140/90 mmHg) is a significant finding that the nurse should report immediately. Hypertension can be a severe side effect of corticosteroid therapy, especially in clients with preexisting conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. It requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as cardiovascular events. The other options, while important to monitor, are not as critical as elevated blood pressure in this context. A blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL may indicate hyperglycemia, weight gain could be due to fluid retention, and increased joint pain is expected in a client with severe rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should avoid eating foods high in potassium.' This statement indicates a misunderstanding as beta-blockers do not typically affect potassium levels. The other choices (A, C, and D) are all appropriate statements for a client prescribed a beta-blocker. Choice A shows understanding of the timing of medication administration, choice C addresses orthostatic hypotension concerns, and choice D highlights the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication to prevent adverse effects.
Question 5 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD experiencing an exacerbation. This indicates increased work of breathing and can be a sign of respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute can be within normal limits. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to airway inflammation but are not as concerning as the use of accessory muscles.
Similar Questions
Join Our Community Today!
Join Over 10,000+ nursing students using Nurselytic. Access Comprehensive study Guides curriculum for HESI-RN and 3000+ practice questions to help you pass your HESI-RN exam.
Subscribe for Unlimited Access