Pharmacology HESI

Questions 46

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology HESI Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the medication teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I will avoid potassium-rich foods.' Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia if potassium intake is not regulated. Therefore, avoiding potassium-rich foods is crucial to prevent this complication. Using a salt substitute can also increase potassium levels. Monitoring weight daily is essential in heart failure management, but it is not specific to spironolactone. Increasing fluid intake as prescribed is generally recommended for heart failure management but is not directly related to spironolactone use.

Question 2 of 5

Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.

Question 3 of 5

A client is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for a trichomoniasis infection. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and headache. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects. Avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent these reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. The other options are not directly related to the specific medication or the condition being treated.

Question 4 of 5

After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

Question 5 of 5

Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

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