HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

Questions 60

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following statements indicates the need for more teaching by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Gaining weight is a sign that the client may be retaining fluid, indicating a need for dialysis to remove excess fluid. Skipping dialysis based on weight gain can lead to fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and other serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding peritoneal dialysis care: taking medications as prescribed is essential for overall health, ensuring the catheter remains in place is crucial to prevent infection, and flushing the catheter with sterile saline daily helps maintain its patency and reduce the risk of infections.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following conditions is the most significant risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is the most significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to its role in insulin resistance. Excess body fat, especially around the abdomen, leads to increased production of inflammatory markers and hormones that can cause insulin resistance. While cigarette smoking, high-cholesterol diet, and hypertension can contribute to health issues, they are not as directly linked to the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus as obesity.

Question 3 of 5

A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following is a key symptom of myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. Chest pain is a hallmark symptom of myocardial infarction (MI) due to inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. This pain can be severe, crushing, or squeezing, and may radiate to the left arm, jaw, or back. Shortness of breath (choice B), nausea (choice C), and fatigue (choice D) can accompany MI but are not as specific or characteristic as chest pain in diagnosing this condition. Therefore, chest pain is the primary symptom to recognize for suspected MI.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.

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