HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moon face. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, leading to the distinctive round and full face known as moon face. Hyperpigmentation (choice A) may occur due to increased ACTH levels, but it is not a hallmark symptom like moon face. Hypotension (choice C) is less common in Cushing's syndrome as cortisol typically leads to hypertension (choice D) due to its effects on blood pressure regulation.
Question 3 of 5
After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.
Question 4 of 5
The client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The serum potassium level should be monitored closely in clients undergoing hemodialysis due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Hemodialysis is used to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because an imbalance can lead to serious cardiac complications, making it the priority value to monitor in this scenario. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for anemia assessment in chronic renal failure but is not directly related to hemodialysis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice B) and creatinine levels (choice D) are commonly monitored in renal function tests but are not the top priority for monitoring in a client undergoing hemodialysis.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.
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