HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
While caring for a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client's laboratory values?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Purulent drainage suggests an infection at the wound site. Reviewing the culture and sensitivity results will guide appropriate antibiotic treatment by identifying the causative organisms and their antibiotic sensitivities. Elevated white blood cells indicate infection but do not specify the organism. Creatinine and hemoglobin values are unrelated to wound infections.
Question 2 of 5
An older adult client with heart failure (HF) and hypertension (HTN) is receiving atenolol, furosemide, and enalapril. Which assessments are essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight and blood pressure is crucial to assess the effectiveness of diuretics (furosemide) and antihypertensives (atenolol, enalapril) in managing heart failure and hypertension. Changes in weight indicate fluid status, while blood pressure readings reflect the control of hypertension. Assessing bowel sounds and range of motion are important but not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of these specific medications in this scenario. Monitoring for hypokalemia is important due to furosemide's potential side effect, but it is not the primary assessment to evaluate medication effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.
Question 4 of 5
A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.
Question 5 of 5
A client presents to the emergency room with an acute asthma attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as prescribed. During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to open the airways quickly to help the client breathe more easily. Oxygen may be needed but bronchodilators take precedence as they directly target bronchoconstriction. Chest physiotherapy is not indicated in the acute phase of asthma and may exacerbate the condition. While emotional support is important, addressing the airway obstruction takes precedence in this situation.
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