HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
Question 2 of 5
Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is an example of nonmaleficence in nursing practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle of doing no harm. In nursing practice, ensuring that a patient does not receive a treatment they have refused is an example of nonmaleficence. Choice A focuses on beneficence by providing pain relief. Choice C is more aligned with beneficence as it emphasizes providing appropriate care without harm. Choice D pertains to patient communication but does not directly address the concept of nonmaleficence.
Question 4 of 5
A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.
Question 5 of 5
A client with Cushing's syndrome is being assessed by the nurse. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct clinical manifestation consistent with Cushing's syndrome is a 'moon face.' Cushing's syndrome is characterized by fat redistribution, leading to the round and full appearance of the face known as a moon face. Choice B, weight loss, is not common in Cushing's syndrome as patients often experience weight gain. Choice C, hyperpigmentation, is more indicative of Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Choice D, hypotension, is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome which often presents with hypertension due to excess cortisol.
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