Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

Questions 60

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.

Question 2 of 5

The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.

Question 3 of 5

To assess the quality of an adult client's pain, what approach should the nurse use?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to describe the pain. This approach allows the nurse to gather subjective information directly from the client, such as the quality, intensity, location, and factors that aggravate or alleviate the pain. Observing body language and movement (Choice A) can provide additional cues but may not fully capture the client's pain experience. Identifying effective pain relief measures (Choice C) and providing a numeric pain scale (Choice D) are important aspects of pain management but do not directly assess the quality of the client's pain.

Question 4 of 5

What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is collecting information from a client with chronic pancreatitis who reports persistent gnawing abdominal pain. To help the client manage the pain, which assessment data is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In chronic pancreatitis, managing abdominal pain is crucial, and assessing the client's eating patterns and dietary intake is essential. Dietary modifications can help alleviate symptoms and reduce the workload on the pancreas. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to pain management in chronic pancreatitis. Bowel sounds, fecal characteristics, and physical activity may provide important information in other conditions but are not the priority in this scenario.

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