HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

Questions 60

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.

Question 2 of 5

In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following interventions is most important?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most important intervention in a patient with COPD because it helps assess the adequacy of oxygenation. In COPD, patients often have compromised lung function, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows healthcare providers to promptly identify and address any potential hypoxemia, which is vital in managing COPD exacerbations. While encouraging the patient to stop smoking (Choice A) is critical for long-term management, monitoring oxygen saturation takes precedence in the immediate care of a COPD patient. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) and providing nutritional support (Choice D) are important aspects of managing COPD but are secondary to monitoring oxygen saturation, which directly impacts the patient's oxygenation status.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.

Question 5 of 5

What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

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