HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
Question 2 of 5
The client with congestive heart failure has been educated about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple. This lunch choice is suitable for a client with congestive heart failure as it is low in sodium. Sliced turkey is a lean protein choice, and canned pineapple is a low-sodium fruit option. Choice A contains high-sodium items like cheese and 2% milk. Choice C includes a cheeseburger, which is typically high in sodium, and a baked potato could also be high in sodium depending on preparation. Choice D consists of mushroom pizza and ice cream, both of which can be high in sodium, especially in processed or restaurant-prepared forms.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.
Question 4 of 5
A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted for first and second degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for dyspnea or stridor. In burn cases involving the face, neck, or chest, there is a risk of airway compromise due to swelling. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) or stridor (noisy breathing) can indicate airway obstruction or respiratory distress, which requires immediate intervention. Covering the burns with dry sterile dressings (choice A) can be important but ensuring airway patency takes precedence. Initiating intravenous therapy (choice C) may be necessary but not the priority over assessing the airway. Administering pain medication (choice D) is important for comfort but should come after ensuring the airway is clear and breathing is adequate.
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