HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

Questions 46

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

When a client is receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for treatment of bronchial cancer, which of the following should take priority in planning care?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Leukopenia should take priority in planning care for a client receiving external beam radiation to the mediastinum for bronchial cancer because it is a serious side effect that increases the risk of infection. Monitoring leukopenia is crucial to prevent complications. Esophagitis, fatigue, and skin irritation are also potential side effects of radiation therapy, but leukopenia poses a higher risk of life-threatening infections, requiring immediate attention.

Question 2 of 5

A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The tube will remove excess air from your chest.' In a spontaneous pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, causing lung collapse. The chest tube is inserted to remove this excess air, allowing the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of a chest tube in pneumothorax is to evacuate air, not fluid, control air entry, or seal a lung hole.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is reinforcing teaching to transition from breastfeeding to whole milk with the parents of an infant. Which of the following months of age should the nurse recommend for transitioning the infant to whole milk?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12 months. Whole milk should be introduced at 12 months to ensure the infant's digestive system can handle the increased fat content. Introducing whole milk before 12 months can lead to digestive issues and potential allergies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because transitioning to whole milk before 12 months is not recommended for infants due to their digestive system still developing and not being able to handle the higher fat content of whole milk.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

Question 5 of 5

After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate meal plan for a client following a myocardial infarction and placed on a sodium-restricted diet should include fresh ingredients with low sodium content to promote heart health. Option D, which consists of 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange, aligns best with these requirements. Option A contains canned beets, which are typically high in sodium. Option B includes canned salmon, which may have added sodium. Option C has a bologna sandwich, which is processed and high in sodium. Therefore, Option D is the most suitable choice for a client needing a low-sodium diet after a heart attack.

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