HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse when a client expresses plans to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms but continue smoking cigarettes is to address denial. By explaining that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen, the nurse educates the client about the impact of smoking on asthma treatment. This approach helps the client understand the importance of smoking cessation in managing asthma symptoms. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial action in this scenario. Revising the plan of care (Choice C) should be considered after addressing the client's denial and educating them. Reviewing factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation (Choice D) is relevant but not the best initial action when denial is identified.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common complication in chronic kidney disease due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. As kidney function declines, potassium levels may increase, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels), hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphate levels) are not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a common symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the risk of a pulmonary embolism. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. If a portion of the clot breaks loose and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath. Chest pain is more commonly associated with conditions like a heart attack or pulmonary embolism itself. Coughing up blood is a symptom more indicative of conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung cancer. Cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to poor oxygenation, can be seen in severe cases of pulmonary embolism but is not a typical symptom of DVT.