HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is to administer the prescribed IV solution. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering IV fluids helps in managing dehydration, replenishing electrolytes, and providing the necessary hydration for both the mother and the fetus. Giving oral rehydration solution (Choice B) may not be sufficient for severe cases of hyperemesis gravidarum where IV fluids are required. Encouraging small, frequent meals (Choice C) may not be effective as the woman may not be able to tolerate oral intake. Offering ginger tea (Choice D) is not the most appropriate intervention for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it may not provide adequate hydration or electrolyte balance needed in severe cases.
Question 2 of 5
A primipara patient asks what is the best pet to have at home to share time with. Which pet is not recommended?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Birds are not recommended as pets for a primipara patient due to potential health risks associated with bird droppings, feathers, and dander. These factors may pose a risk to the newborn's health and the mother's well-being. Additionally, some birds can be loud, which may disrupt the baby's sleep patterns. Therefore, it is advisable for primipara patients to consider pets like dogs, cats, or fish as they generally have lower associated risks in a household with a newborn. Dogs, cats, and fish are relatively safer options compared to birds for primipara patients due to their lower risk of transmitting infections, allergens, or causing disturbances that could affect the newborn or the mother.
Question 3 of 5
The LPN/LVN assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring for bleeding from IV sites is the priority intervention in this situation. The dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine tension, and other assessment findings suggest a potential placental abruption. Monitoring bleeding from IV sites can help detect coagulopathy, which may be associated with placental abruption. Options A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions in this scenario. Inserting an internal fetal monitor, assessing for cervical changes, and performing Leopold's maneuvers are not the priority actions when dark red vaginal bleeding and uterine tension are present, indicating a potential emergency situation.
Question 4 of 5
During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don't plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.
Question 5 of 5
A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.
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