HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
What does the nurse's signature on the client's surgical consent form signify?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.
Question 2 of 5
A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly confused. What action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly confused is to monitor the client's vital signs (Choice B). Increased confusion in Alzheimer's disease patients may indicate underlying issues like infection, dehydration, or medication side effects. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any potential causes of the confusion. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority in this situation. Reorienting the client to time and place (Choice A) can be helpful but is not the first priority. Providing calming activities (Choice C) and consulting with the healthcare provider about medication adjustments (Choice D) may be necessary but should come after assessing the client's vital signs to rule out immediate physical causes of confusion.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
Question 4 of 5
What breakfast selection indicates appropriate dietary management for osteoporosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bagel with jelly and skim milk is a calcium-rich and low-fat option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for managing osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, so it is essential to consume an adequate amount of calcium while avoiding excess fat intake. Choices A, C, and D are not ideal for osteoporosis management as they either lack sufficient calcium, contain high fat content, or both.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What client teaching is essential?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine, which can be reduced by maintaining adequate hydration. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding sunlight exposure is more relevant for medications that cause photosensitivity, not typically a concern with ciprofloxacin. Choice D is less essential than choice A because while reporting changes in urine color is important, preventing crystalluria through adequate fluid intake is a higher priority.
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