HESI RN CAT Exam Quizlet

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide the client in this situation is that using both a diaphragm and a condom together provides effective contraception and also protects against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). While oral contraceptives can help prevent unwanted pregnancies, using a barrier method like a diaphragm and a condom is crucial in this scenario where the client is engaging in a new sexual relationship. Choice B is important information but is not the top priority in this context. Choice C, although relevant, does not address the immediate concern of contraception and STD prevention. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to stop the feeding infusion. Coughing in a client with a nasogastric tube can indicate aspiration, which can be a serious complication. By stopping the feeding infusion immediately, the nurse can prevent further aspiration and related complications. Auscultating breath sounds or turning the client to the side may be necessary actions but addressing the feeding infusion is the priority. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate issue of potential aspiration is managed.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The maximum dosage the nurse should administer is 2 mg. This is calculated based on the prescription of 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. Since the medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2 ml (0.2 mg/ml x 10 ml) for each dose, not exceeding 5 doses. Therefore, the nurse should limit the client's oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml, to avoid exceeding the maximum dosage of 2 mg.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-6 spinal injury exhibiting shallow respirations and dyspnea, these signs could indicate respiratory compromise and potential respiratory failure. Intubation with an endotracheal tube may be necessary to secure the airway and support adequate oxygenation. Placing the client in reverse Trendelenburg position, administering pain medication, or instructing on deep breathing exercises would not directly address the urgency of the respiratory distress in this situation, making them incorrect choices.