HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.