HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is required to lower potassium levels. Choice B, serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, is elevated but expected in ESRD due to impaired kidney function. Choice C, serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and not typically a priority in this situation. Choice D, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, is slightly low but not an immediate concern for a client scheduled for hemodialysis unless significantly lower and causing severe symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During the initial visit, the most crucial intervention for the nurse is to determine how the client is cared for when the caregiver is not present. This is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being, especially during times when the caregiver is not available. Option B is not the most important as it focuses on assessment rather than immediate safety concerns. Option C, while important, is secondary to ensuring continuous care. Option D is less critical during the initial visit compared to ensuring care continuity in the caregiver's absence.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Continuing to turn the client is crucial to prevent complications such as pressure ulcers, even if the client is less responsive. Advising the UAP to resume positioning the client on schedule is the most appropriate action in this situation. This action ensures that the client's care needs are met and helps prevent potential complications. Notifying the healthcare provider or documenting the UAP's actions may delay the necessary care for the client. Discussing the situation with the client's family is important but addressing the immediate care need of turning the client takes priority.