Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Women generally enter menopause between the ages of 45 - 50 years. During this stage, women experience a decline in estrogen production, leading to the cessation of menstrual cycles. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not fall within the typical age range for menopause onset. Menopause typically occurs later in life, around the age of 45 to 50 years, although individual variations exist.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to irregular menstrual bleeding that occurs between periods. Cervical carcinoma, a type of cancer that develops in the cervix, can lead to metrorrhagia. Uterine polyps, which are growths attached to the inner wall of the uterus, can also cause abnormal bleeding. While infections like Chlamydia can cause abnormal vaginal bleeding, they are not common causes of metrorrhagia. Cervical endometriosis, although a possible gynecological condition, is not a typical cause of metrorrhagia. Therefore, the correct answer is cervical carcinoma as it is a known cause of metrorrhagia, making the other options incorrect.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Privacy in reproductive health services necessitates maintaining confidentiality and creating a private environment for patients. This includes covering windows and using partitions between examination areas to protect the patient's privacy. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests exposing women during exams, which violates privacy. Choice C is incorrect because discussing patients openly breaches confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as it goes against informed consent and proper communication, which are essential components of respecting patient autonomy and privacy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.