HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103�F (39.4�C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The statement indicates a misunderstanding because medication for CAD should be taken as prescribed, not only when chest pain occurs.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
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