HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is to have antineoplastic chemotherapy tells the nurses of a fear of being sick all the time and wishes to try acupuncture. Which of these beliefs stated by the client would be incorrect about acupuncture?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The belief stated in option C is incorrect about acupuncture. Acupuncture is based on the concept of qi flowing through major pathways in the body, known as meridians, rather than nerve clusters. This traditional Chinese medicine practice aims to balance the flow of qi to promote health and healing. Options A, B, and D are consistent with the principles of acupuncture and are not incorrect beliefs. Option A describes the depth and duration of needle placement, option B explains the role of imbalances in qi flow causing illness, and option D outlines how acupuncture helps rebalance energy flow for the body's natural healing mechanisms.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
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