A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?- Skildor

Question 1 of 5

A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad'. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

A. Blindness due to cataracts B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage C. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage D. Heart block due to myocardial damage

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Stroke secondary to hemorrhage.' Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to the weakening of blood vessels in the brain, increasing the risk of a stroke due to hemorrhage. This can result in serious neurological deficits or even death. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while hypertension can have various complications including vision changes, kidney damage, and heart problems, the most immediate and severe risk associated with uncontrolled hypertension is a stroke from cerebral hemorrhage.

Question 2 of 5

A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?

A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours. C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?

A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools. B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level. C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth. D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.

Question 4 of 5

When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed. B. Monitor the client's urine output. C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed. D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

Question 5 of 5

The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?

A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist C. Administer the medications as prescribed D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

Skildor

HESI RN

HESI RN

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