HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering 50% dextrose IV push is the first priority in treating hypoglycemia to rapidly increase blood glucose levels. This choice is correct because in severe cases of hypoglycemia, when a client is admitted and unconscious or unable to swallow, intravenous administration of dextrose is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Option B, administering 15 grams of oral glucose, would be suitable for conscious clients with mild hypoglycemia who can swallow safely. Option C, rechecking blood glucose levels, should follow after immediate intervention to assess the response. Option D, administering a glucagon injection, is more suitable for cases where dextrose is not readily available or when the client does not respond to dextrose administration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is dangerously high for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the healthcare provider before the procedure to prevent any potential serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the context of preparing for a hemodialysis session. Serum potassium levels above 6.0 mEq/L require immediate attention to ensure patient safety.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the client's capillary refill of 8 seconds is the assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. A capillary refill greater than 3 to 5 seconds indicates poor perfusion, which could be a sign of inadequate circulation and oxygenation. Checking capillary refill is a quick and useful way to assess peripheral perfusion. Bruises on arms and legs may indicate a bleeding disorder but are not as urgent as addressing poor perfusion. A round and tight abdomen could suggest ascites, which is already known in this case. Pitting edema in lower legs is a common finding in malnutrition and ascites but does not require immediate intervention as poor capillary refill does.