RN HESI Exit Exam

Questions 70

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

RN HESI Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to request that the mother leave the room. This is important to maintain a calm environment and allow the healthcare team to assess and manage the situation without interference. Option A is not the best choice as it may escalate the situation. Option B, notifying the charge nurse, could be considered after addressing the immediate need to remove the mother from the room. Option D, requesting security to remove her, is not necessary at this point and may further escalate the situation unnecessarily.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax as it can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be expected post-procedure and may not necessitate immediate action. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is reviewing a client's electrocardiogram and determines the PR interval (PRI) is prolonged. What does this finding indicate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When the PR interval is prolonged, it signifies an increased conduction time from the SA node through the AV junction. This finding is characteristic of a first-degree heart block where there is a delay in the electrical conduction at the level of the AV node. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the significance of a prolonged PR interval.

Question 5 of 5

After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

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