HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.
Question 2 of 5
A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.
Question 4 of 5
A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.
Question 5 of 5
During an excretory urogram, which observation made by the nurse indicates a complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a whole-body bright red color indicates a severe reaction to the contrast dye and must be addressed immediately. Choices A, C, and D do not indicate a severe complication during an excretory urogram. Choice A is a common side effect of the dye, choice C could be a normal sensation due to the injection, and choice D may indicate nausea which is less severe compared to a whole-body red color reaction.
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