HESI RN Exit Exam 2023

Questions 73

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.

Question 2 of 5

The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RNs) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The client with viral meningitis and a temperature change is the most stable and appropriate for assignment to the PN. A change in temperature from 101�F to 102�F is not as critical as changes in Glasgow Coma Scale score, blood pressure, or wider blood pressure variations. The other clients require more complex monitoring and intervention due to their critical changes in status.

Question 3 of 5

A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab test is important for the nurse to review before contacting the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia. Serum calcium levels should be reviewed as they play a crucial role in diagnosing and managing hypocalcemia. Option A, capillary glucose, is not relevant to the symptoms described. Option B, urine specific gravity, is not typically used to assess numbness and tingling. Option D, white blood cell count, is unrelated to the symptoms presented by the client.

Question 4 of 5

A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being monitored for choriocarcinoma. She lives in a rural area, and her husband takes the family car to work daily, leaving her without transportation during the day. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling weekly home visits to monitor hCG levels is critical for early detection of choriocarcinoma, a potential complication of GTD. Choice A is incorrect because a home pregnancy test is not the appropriate method to monitor for choriocarcinoma. Choice C is less frequent than necessary for close monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy administration should be based on confirmed diagnosis and treatment plan, not initiated during the first home visit.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

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