HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

Questions 82

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HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

Question 2 of 5

A client with hypertension is being educated on lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which recommendation is the most important to reduce blood pressure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Reducing sodium intake is crucial in managing hypertension as high sodium levels can lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. While increasing water intake is beneficial for overall health, reducing sodium has a more significant impact on blood pressure. Regular exercise is important for cardiovascular health but does not have as direct an impact on blood pressure as sodium reduction. Avoiding alcohol is also important, but in terms of managing blood pressure, reducing sodium intake takes precedence.

Question 3 of 5

A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse leading a medical-surgical unit care team assigns client care to a PN and a UAP. Which task should the nurse delegate to the UAP?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Turning and repositioning a client is within the scope of practice of a UAP. This task helps prevent pressure ulcers and assists in maintaining the client's comfort and mobility. Assessing pain level post-surgery requires clinical judgment and interpretation, making it appropriate for a PN or RN. Administering medication like insulin involves critical thinking and potential adjustments based on the client's condition, which is the responsibility of a licensed nurse. Changing postoperative dressings involves wound assessment, infection control, and knowledge of aseptic techniques, tasks that fall under the purview of a PN or RN.

Question 5 of 5

A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

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