RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with dry, peeling skin at a radiation therapy treatment site is to use mild soap and water to cleanse the area. This approach helps in preventing skin irritation and reduces the risk of infection. Applying lotion (Choice A) may further irritate the skin due to the chemicals present in the lotion. Covering the area with a sterile dressing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there is an open wound that needs protection. Allowing the skin to air dry after washing (Choice D) may lead to further dryness and peeling.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the blood type with another nurse is critical before starting a blood transfusion to prevent a potentially life-threatening transfusion reaction. This step ensures that the client receives the correct blood product. Administering pre-transfusion medication, ensuring adequate fluid intake, and monitoring vital signs are important steps during the transfusion process, but verifying the blood type is the most crucial step to ensure patient safety.