HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

Questions 83

HESI RN

HESI RN Test Bank

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving intravenous fluids and pain medication. What is the priority assessment for this client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor blood glucose levels. Clients with acute pancreatitis are prone to hyperglycemia due to impaired insulin production. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While assessing bowel sounds, urine output, and abdominal tenderness are important in the overall care of a client with acute pancreatitis, monitoring blood glucose levels takes priority to address the immediate risk of hyperglycemia.

Question 2 of 5

A client with hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat potassium-rich foods like bananas and oranges.' Thiazide diuretics can lead to potassium loss, so it is essential for clients to consume potassium-rich foods to maintain adequate levels. Choice A is incorrect because focusing solely on low carbohydrates and fats does not address the specific issue of potassium loss. Choice B is unrelated as vitamin K content is not a concern with thiazide diuretics. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake would exacerbate hypertension and not prevent dehydration.

Question 3 of 5

An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.

Question 4 of 5

After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

Question 5 of 5

An adolescent client with meningococcal meningitis is receiving a continuous IV infusion of penicillin G. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 83. The pharmacy provided the infusion at 10 million units per liter, which requires a rate of 83 mL/hour. To calculate this, multiply the dosage by the volume of the IV solution and divide by the concentration of the IV solution in million units: 10 million units per liter x 8.3 L = 83 mL/hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given information.

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