HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

Questions 45

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HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client who underwent preadmission testing 1 week before surgery had blood drawn for several serum laboratory studies. Which abnormal laboratory results should the nurse report to the surgeon's office? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hemoglobin level of 8.9 g/dL is below the normal range, indicating anemia. Anemia can affect the body's ability to carry oxygen, impacting surgical outcomes. Hematocrit level is an indirect measure of red blood cells, which also reveals anemia when low. Sodium level of 141 mEq/L and platelet count of 210,000 cells/mm3 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Abnormal sodium levels can lead to various issues, but in this scenario, it is not a concern for surgical readiness. Platelet count is vital for blood clotting, and a count of 210,000 cells/mm3 is considered normal, so it does not need urgent attention.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client's dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.

Question 4 of 5

During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.

Question 5 of 5

During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5� C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

Similar Questions

During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5� C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
A client is returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should tell the client:
The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a "shift to the left" in the client's white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?
The charge nurse of the medical-surgical unit is making staff assignments. Which staff member should be assigned to a client with chronic kidney disease who is exhibiting a low-grade fever and a pericardial friction rub?

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