HESI RN
Pharmacology HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client who had a kidney transplant is receiving therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that can reduce the effectiveness of vaccines. Clients should avoid vaccinations without consulting their health care provider to prevent potential complications or reduced efficacy of the vaccines.
Question 2 of 5
A client who had a kidney transplant is receiving therapy with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant that can reduce the effectiveness of vaccines. Clients should avoid vaccinations without consulting their health care provider to prevent potential complications or reduced efficacy of the vaccines.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving morphine sulfate subcutaneously for pain. Because morphine sulfate has been prescribed for this client, which nursing action would be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses the cough reflex, which can lead to the retention of secretions in the lungs. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe helps prevent pneumonia by clearing the airways of any accumulated secretions. This intervention is crucial in clients receiving morphine sulfate to maintain optimal respiratory function.
Question 4 of 5
The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is used as an antiulcer agent to reduce gastric acid secretion. The optimal intended effect of omeprazole is the relief of pain and discomfort associated with gastric irritation, commonly referred to as heartburn. Therefore, the absence of heartburn indicates that the medication is working effectively in managing the client's gastric condition.
Question 5 of 5
A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.
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