HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96�F (36.6�C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Left ventricular atrophy. Older adults who lead sedentary lifestyles are at risk of developing left ventricular atrophy, which can lead to decreased cardiac output during physical exertion. This condition can contribute to the client's inability to perform activities requiring physical exertion. Choice B, irregular heartbeats, may be a consideration due to the presence of a pacemaker, but the client's reported inability to perform physically exerting activities is more indicative of a structural issue like left ventricular atrophy rather than a rhythm-related problem. Peripheral vascular occlusion (Choice C) is less likely to be the cause of the client's symptoms compared to the cardiac-related issue of left ventricular atrophy. While assessing pacemaker function (Choice D) is important, the client's symptoms are more suggestive of a cardiac structural issue rather than a malfunction of the pacemaker.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.