HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. The symptoms described, including symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, are classic manifestations of botulism, which is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum. This toxin affects the nervous system, leading to muscle weakness and paralysis. Choice A, ricin, typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and organ failure. Choice C, sulfur mustard, causes blistering skin and respiratory issues. Choice D, yersinia pestis, is associated with the plague and presents with fever, chills, weakness, and swollen lymph nodes.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in clients taking ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Hyperkalemia is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors and can be exacerbated by consuming potassium-rich foods. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (A) is important when taking antihypertensive medications. Reporting signs of infection (B) is crucial as ACE inhibitors can lower the immune response. Avoiding salt substitutes (C) is necessary because they may contain potassium chloride, leading to increased potassium levels, which can be harmful in combination with ACE inhibitors.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare provider is conducting a health assessment for a family in a rural area. Which intervention should the healthcare provider prioritize to address the family's health needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In rural areas, access to healthcare may be limited. Providing information on local healthcare resources is essential to ensure the family can access necessary services. While proper nutrition (choice B) and medical appointments (choice C) are important, having access to healthcare resources is fundamental. Transportation services (choice D) may be helpful but addressing the availability of healthcare resources should be the priority.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.
Question 5 of 5
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) medication to a client. Which action should the healthcare provider take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's allergy status is the priority before administering any medication, especially intravenously. This step helps identify any potential allergic reactions and prevents harm to the client. Verifying the client's identity using two identifiers is important but not the first step in medication administration. Preparing the medication for administration and administering the medication at the prescribed rate come after ensuring the client's safety by checking for allergies.
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