HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.
Question 2 of 5
During a routine clinic visit, a nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client with a history of smoking. The client, who exercises regularly, reports calf pain during exercise that disappears at rest. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An Ankle-Brachial Index of 0.65 suggests moderate arterial vascular disease in a client experiencing intermittent claudication, indicating compromised blood flow to the lower extremities during exercise. This finding requires further evaluation to assess the severity of arterial insufficiency and determine appropriate interventions. Choice A (Heart rate of 57 bpm) is within the normal range for an adult at rest and indicates good cardiovascular fitness. Choice B (SpO2 of 94% on room air) is slightly lower than the normal range but is generally acceptable in a healthy individual. Choice C (Blood pressure of 134/82) falls within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns in this context.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.
Question 4 of 5
The client had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago and reports experiencing numbness and tingling of the face. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign. Chvostek's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroidectomy. Numbness and tingling around the face are associated with hypocalcemia due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to decreased calcium levels. Inspecting the neck for swelling (choice B) is important but does not directly address the presenting symptoms. Opening and preparing the tracheostomy kit (choice A) is not necessary based on the client's current symptoms. Assessing lung sounds for laryngeal stridor (choice D) is not directly related to the client's reported numbness and tingling of the face.
Question 5 of 5
A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.
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