HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.
Question 2 of 5
A client receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's best intervention to manage these symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering antiemetics before meals is the best intervention to manage nausea and vomiting in clients receiving chemotherapy. This proactive approach helps control symptoms by preventing nausea from occurring, rather than waiting to treat it once symptoms have already started. Offering frequent, small meals (choice A) may worsen symptoms in some cases due to increased stomach activity. Encouraging a high-fat diet (choice C) can be difficult for nauseated clients and may not alleviate symptoms. Providing cold, carbonated beverages (choice D) could exacerbate nausea further due to the temperature and carbonation.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.
Question 5 of 5
Which documentation indicates that activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis were performed correctly?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly.' This documentation indicates the correct performance of activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis, as both components are crucial for prevention. Choice B is incorrect because removing stockings hourly is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as leg exercises should be performed despite wearing antiembolism stockings. Choice D is incorrect as demonstrating the ability to move extremities well does not specifically address the prevention of venous stasis.
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