HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

Questions 82

HESI RN

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HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.

Question 2 of 5

Which self-care measure is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care of a client recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Blood glucose monitoring is crucial for managing diabetes effectively. By monitoring blood sugar levels, individuals can understand how their lifestyle choices, medications, and diet affect their glucose levels. This information helps in making necessary adjustments to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. While maintaining a low-sugar diet, foot care, and daily exercise are all important aspects of managing diabetes, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence as it provides real-time data for informed decision-making.

Question 3 of 5

A client on mechanical ventilation is experiencing high-pressure alarms. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction. When a client on mechanical ventilation experiences high-pressure alarms, the first action should be to check for any potential obstructions in the airway, which can trigger the alarms. Checking the oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but not the priority when dealing with high-pressure alarms. Repositioning the client (Choice C) may be necessary later but should not be the initial action. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) should only be done after assessing for and addressing any obstructions in the endotracheal tube.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

Question 5 of 5

A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

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