HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.
Question 2 of 5
The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A client is scheduled to undergo computerized tomography (CT) with contrast for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The nurse should tell the client that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A contrast-aided CT scan involves the injection of dye to enhance the images obtained. The dye may cause a warm flushing sensation when injected, which is a common side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. CT with contrast is generally not a painful procedure, the duration of the test does not usually take 2 to 3 hours, and restrictions on food and fluids are typically before the test, not afterward.
Question 4 of 5
A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient's face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, "red man" syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.
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